Archive for 2011

DRDO SET ECE Question Paper

1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A

2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms

3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms

4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90

5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX

7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)

8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC

9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15

10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125

12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3

13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms

14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V

15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms

16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET

17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}

18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s

19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor

20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02

22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode


23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV

24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET

25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82

Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.

27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA

28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter

29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA

31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier

32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β

33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic

34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02

35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave

36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz

37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC  b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯  c) AB¯+B¯C+AC  d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register

50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other
b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w
c) a constant and τg is proportional to w
d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is                                                       a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is                                                                                                                                                         a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K,respectively are                                                                                 
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180

71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
 a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal            
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal

72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0}is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W

74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage

75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate

76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector

77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct

78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T

82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA

83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel

84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)

85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2

86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2

87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps

88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90 0.9 L90 0.2 L0] Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal
d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

GENERAL ABILITY TEST 

101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106. DRDO was formed in a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile b) a quick reaction surface to air missile c) an intermediate range ballistic missile d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x

115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)…….. a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only

118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A -sin A cos A] is a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as F(x) = 3x-1, x<0 0, x=0 2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods

132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor

ANSWERS

1) d)Uttarpradesh
2) a) co2
3) c) sydney
4) a) prime minister
5) c) PSLV C9
6) d) 1958
7) b) army
8) don't know
119) b) quick reaction surface to air missile
110) a) sonar
111 to 25 simple math problem
126) d) 4
127) might be sentence 2
128) b) will
129) c) 2
130) b) theft of ideas
131) c) permanent
132) b) height
133) b) with,at
134)b) to hear
135)d) he has been known by me for a long time
136) b) coop
137)a) 573675
138)d) 35,53
139)a) local time of C is ahead of that of B( not confirmed)
140) b) P is daughter of R
141) d) APISR
142) b) 11
143) c) killr
144) a) surgeon
145)d)
146) c)
147) b)
148) c)
149) b)
150) c)

by Rakesh Sahu. 1 Comment

Computer Graphics

click below links to download your choice of books related to Computer Graphics:

Computer graphics, Hearn and Baker, PHI

Computer Graphics, Foley, PE-LPE

Introduction to Computer Graphics

Principles of Computer Graphics-Theory and Practice Using OpenGL and Maya



                                                          


by Rakesh Sahu. No Comments

Software Engineering

click below links to download your choice of books related to Software Engineering:

Software engineering – A practitioner’s Approach, Roger S. Pressman

Software engineering, Ian Sommervile, Person education 

Software Engineering - A Practical Guide To User Requirements - Catherine Courage & Kathy Baxter


                                          

by Rakesh Sahu. No Comments

UNIX and SHELL Programming

by Rakesh Sahu. 1 Comment

Ebooks for CS-IT

Here you can download all the Ebooks and also the Solution which is either on syllabus of B.Tech/B.E. or reference book for Gate And IES. Hopefully it will help you.
Click on Subject for which you want to download Ebooks.
each Subject link contain such as text books or reference books which is on your syllabus.

C and C++ Language

Computer Architecture & design

Computational Mathematics

Discrete Mathematics

Data Structures

Analysis & Design Of Algorithms

Operating System

Database Management System

JAVA

Compiler Design

UNIX and SHELL Programming

Software Engineering

Computer Graphics

Computer Network

Mathematics-III

Basic Electronics

Digital Electronics & Logic Design

Microprocessor & Interfaces

Principal of Communication System


by Rakesh Sahu. 4 Comments

SAIL

What is SAIL
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is the leading steel-making company in India. It is a fully integrated iron and steel maker, producing both basic and special steels for domestic construction, engineering, power, railway, automotive and defence industries and for sale in export markets. SAIL is also among the five Maharatnas of the country's Central Public Sector Enterprises.
                     Hindustan Steel Private Limited was set up on January 19, 1954.The registered office was originally in New Delhi. It moved to Calcutta in July 1956, and ultimately to Ranchi in December 1959.HSL was initially started to handle the steel plant at Rourkela.  But afterwards completion of other steel plants such as Bhilai, Durgapur there was a need of one managing organization. Thus a new centralized organization came up on 24th January, 1973 known as SAIL, Steel Authority of India. Today it is the most trusted Steel organization of India.With a turnover of Rs.  47,103 crore and more than 131,910 employees, it produces 13.5 million  metric tons annually and is the 16th largest steel producer in the  world.More about SAIL please visit http://www.sail.co.in.

Eligibilities for  SAIL
Qualification for SAIL Management Trainee Technical
A full time degree in Engineering /MCA with 65% marks obtained from the average of all semesters is required. The degree should be under any of the following disciplines - Mechanical, Electrical, Metallurgy, Civil, E&T,Instrumentation, Ceramics, Chemical, Computer Science and Mining Engineering. SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates who have Bachelors' degree with 50% marks and MBA/PG Diploma in Management in the relevant discipline with just 50% marks are eligible to apply . SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates with an Engineering Degree in the required disciplines and with just 55% marks in the same are eligible to apply . Management Trainees (Technical) post, candidates having degree in related disciplines can also apply against their respective discipline.
The eligible related engineering disciplines are marked against the respective main disciplines as shown below:
Mechanical --- Mechanical / Production / Industrial Engg / Production & Industrial Engg / Thermal / Mechanical & Automation .
Electrical --- Electrical / Electrical & Electronics / Electrical , Instrumentation & Control / Power Systems & High Voltage / Power Electronics / Power Engineering .
Electronics &Telecommunication --- Electronics / Electronics & Telecomm / Electronics & Communication .
Instrumentation & Control --- Electronics & Power / Electronics & Instrumentation / Instrumentation & Control / Electrical, Instrumentation & Control .
Computer Science Computer --- Science/ Information Technology/MCA (three years) .
Qualification for SAIL Management Trainee Administration
Job In HR and Marketing : The following qualification criteria should be matched for applying for this job . A Bachelors' degree in any discipline with 60% marks and with not less than 2 years full time MBA/PG Diploma in management with 60% marks in HR/PM&IR/Pers /MHROD is required for HR and Marketing for Marketing discipline. SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates who have Bachelors' degree with 50% marks and MBA/PG Diploma in Management in the relevant discipline with just 50% marks are eligible to apply .
Age Limit: Born not earlier than June 1, 1979 (Upper age limit of 30 years is relaxable by 5years for SC/ST, by 3 years for OBC candidates and by 10 years for Physically Handicapped candidates). Those domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir from1/1/80 to 31/12/89 will be allowed 5 years relaxation in upper age limit.

SAIL Exam Pattern & Selection Process
Selection process of SAIL MT exam involves a written test, followed by GD and interview. The current  SAIL exam notification does not says anything about the pattern of the written test excepting that there would be negative marks for wrong answers: 1/4th of the marks for that question.So the exam pattern given here is based on the previous years SAIL exam pattern.
SAIL written exam usually have following five sections to be answered in 2:25 hr:
Reasoning -                                                 45 marks
Quantitative Aptitude-                                35 marks
General Awareness-                                    35 marks
English Language-                                      35 marks
Technical Paper (specific to your stream)-    100 marks.

Group Discussion / Interview:
Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the written test will be intimated to appear for Group Discussion and Interview, which may be held at short notice. Please visit the SAIL website for information on the same. SC/ST/OBC candidates will be given relaxation in prescribed qualifying level for written test, group discussion and interview.
Training & Probation: Candidates selected as Management Trainee (Technical) will be placed on training for one year and will be registered as apprentices under the provisions of Apprentices Act, 1961. After successful completion of the training period, they will be on probation for one year.

SAIL MT vacancies 2011: 
There are 375 Management Trainee (MT) positions on offer with break-up as follows:
Management Trainee (MT) Technical:               318
Management Trainee (MT) Administration:       57
                        Salary  being offered by SAIL for MT: Basic Pay of Rs.20,600/- p.m. in the pay scale  of Rs.20600-3%-46500 (E-1). On successful completion of training the  Management Trainees are designated as Junior Managers in the same  scale of pay. With this salary for SAIL MT, the CTC is around Rs. 7 lakhs p.a with other benefits like Leave encashment, housing/HRA and free medical facility etc.

Important Dates for SAIL Management Trainee Exam 2011
1. Starting date for submitting applications through website 27.07.2011
2. Closing date for submitting applications through website 17.08.2011
3. Starting date for downloading of Admit Card from SAIL website for written examination 05.09.2011
4. Tentative Date of Written Test (will be confirmed in Admit Card) 25.09.2011

Download

Download Sail Placement Paper of G.K., Mental Ability, English, Technical 2010(All in One)









by Rakesh Sahu. 1 Comment

ISRO

What is ISRO?
Indian Space Research Organisation(ISRO) is the primary body for space research under the control of the Government of India. ISRO was Established in August 15, 1969 (42 years ago).The objective of ISRO is to develop space technology and its application to various national tasks. Accordingly, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully operationalised two major satellite systems namely Indian National Satellites (INSAT) for communication services and Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites for management of natural resources; also, Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) for launching IRS type of satellites and Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) for launching INSAT type of satellites.How prestigious an organisation is ISRO can be gauged from the fact that none other than the Prime Minister of this country is at its helm, as you can find from this Organisational Chart.You can know about more about this very prestigious organisation from Wikipedia page.
                       Almost each year ISRO conducts two separate exams for recruiting its manpower – one for its technical stream for the positions of Scientists/ Engineers and the other for its administrative stream for the positions of Administrative Officer/Accounts Officer/ Purchase & Stores Officer.

Eligibilities for ISRO
Academic Qualification eligibility:You need to be a first class BE/B.Tech or equivalent in Electronics, Mechanical and Computer Science engineering, with a minimum aggregate of 65% (average of all semesters for which results are available). Final year students can also apply, provided the results are declared within 31st August, 2011.
Age Limit: 35 years as on 23.05.2011. (40 years in case of SC/ST candidates and 38 years for OBC candidates). Ex-serviceman and Persons with Disabilities are eligible for age relaxation as per Government of India orders.

ISRO Salaries for Scientist/Engineers: The gross salary offered by ISRO for these Scientist/Engineers positions is in pay-scale of  Rs. 15600-39100 + 5400 (Grade Pay).  The gross monthly salary with this pay-scale is aproximately approximately Rs.30,450/- per month.

ISRO Exam Pattern
The selection will be based on written test + interview.The short listed candidates shall be called for written test. Those who qualify in the written test shall be called for interview.
ISRO exam consists of total 80 questions, to be answered in 90 min. Marking +3 for correct answer -1 for wrong.There is only one section and the questions would be your branch-specific.

ISRO Notification
Some of you may be appearing in ISRO Recruitment Scientists/Engineers exam 2012 and would like to know when the dates for ISRO Recruitment exam 2012 notification would come out and when the exam would be held. Based on previous exams, let me tell you that the notification comes out on the 1st week of February and the written exam is held in mid-April Saturday. Date of ISRO Recruitment Scientists/Engineers exam 2012 should be 14th April 2012 (Saturday).

Downlaods

Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Electronics:
Download ISRO Exam 2006 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2007 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Electronics Papers

Download ISRO Exam 2010 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Computer Science:
Download ISRO Exam 2007 Computer Science Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Computer Science Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Computer Science Papers

Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Mechanical:
Download ISRO Exam 2006 Mechanical Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2007 Mechanical Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Mechanical Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Mechanical Papers

Download ISRO Exam 2010 Mechanical Papers

Download ISRO Exam Papers for Administrative Officer:
Download ISRO Exam 2007 Administrative Officer Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Administrative Officer Papers


by Rakesh Sahu. 7 Comments

ISRO Exam Syllabus

click the below link as per your stream:
Electronics Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam
Computer Science Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam
Mechanical Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam


Electronics Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam



(1) Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs:

Electrons and holes in semi-conductors, Carner Statistics, Mechanism of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, GTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; basic and Opto Electronics.

(2) Signals and Systems:

Classification of signals and systems; System modeling in terms of differential and difference equations; State variable representation; Fourier series; Fourier transforms and their application to system analysis; Laplace transforms and their application to system analysis; Convolution and superposition integrals and their applications; Z-transforms and their applications to the analysis and characterization of discrete time systems; Random signals and probability; Correlation functions; Spectral density; Response of linear system to random inputs.

(3) Network Theory:

Network analysis techniques; Network theorems, transient response, steady state sinusoidal response; Network graphs and their applications in network analysis; Tellegen’s theorem. Two port networks; Z, Y, h and transmission parameters. Combination of two ports, analysis of common two ports. Network functions: parts of network functions, obtaining a network function from a given part. Transmission criteria: delay and rise time, Elmore’s and other definitions effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

(4) Electromagnetic Theory:

Analysis of electrostatic and magneto-static fields; Laplace’s and Poisson’s equations; Boundary value problems and their solutions; Maxwell’s equations; application to wave propagation in bounded and unbounded media; Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of wave guides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

(5) Analog Electronic Circuits:

Transistor biasing and stabilization. Small signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency. response. Wide banding techniques. Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators, Rectifiers and power supplies. Op Amp, PLL, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

(6) Digital Electronic Circuits:

Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean function Karnaugh map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, Full adder; Digital comparator; Multiplexer De-multiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops. R-S, J-K, D and T flip-tops; Different types of counters and registers. Waveform generators. A/D and D/A converters. Semi-conductor memories.

(7) Control Systems:

Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity; Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems; Compensators; Industrial controllers.

(8) Communication Systems:

Basic information theory; Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstructions; Quantization and coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization; Optical Communication: in free space and fiber optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite Communication.

(9) Microwave Engineering:

Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Wave guides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave Antennas, Microwave Measurements, Masers, Lasers; Micro-wave propagation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

(10) Computer Engineering:

Number Systems. Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture; Processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization, I/o System Organization. Microprocessors: Architecture and instruction set of Microprocessor’s 8085 and 8086, Assembly language Programming. Microprocessor Based system design: typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses.

Computer Science Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam



(1) Computer H/W Digital Logic: Logic functions, Minimization, Design and synthesis of Combinational and Sequential circuits — Number representation and Computer Arithmetic (fixed and floating point)

(2) Computer Organization: Machine instructions and addressing modes, ALU and Data-path, hardwired and micro-programmed control, Memory interface, I/O interface (Interrupt and DMA mode), Serial communication interface, Instruction pipelining, Cache, main and secondary storage.

(3) SOFTWARE SYSTEMS Data structures: Notion of abstract data types, Stack, Queue, List, Set, String, Tree, Binary search tree, Heap, Graph –

(4) Programming Methodology: C programming, Program control (iteration, recursion, Functions), Scope, Binding, Parameter passing, Elementary concepts of Object oriented, Functional and Logic Programming –

(5) Algorithms for problem solving: Tree and graph traversals, Connected components, Spanning trees, Shortest paths — Hashing, Sorting, Searching — Design techniques (Greedy, Dynamic Programming, Divide-and-conquer) –

(6) Compiler Design: Lexical analysis, Parsing, Syntax directed translation, Runtime environment, Code generation, Linking (static and dynamic) –

(7) Operating Systems: Classical concepts (concurrency, synchronization, deadlock), Processes, threads and Inter-process communication, CPU scheduling, Memory management, File systems, I/O systems, Protection and security.

(8) Databases: Relational model (ER-model, relational algebra, tuple calculus), Database design (integrity constraints, normal forms), Query languages (SQL), File structures (sequential files, indexing, B+ trees), Transactions and concurrency control –

(9) Computer Networks: ISO/OSI stack, sliding window protocol, LAN Technologies (Ethernet, Token ring), TCP/UDP, IP, Basic concepts of switches, gateways, and routers.

Mechanical Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam



1. ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, system of linear equations, eigenvalues and eigenvectors.

Calculus: Taylor Series, Fourier Series, partial derivatives, total derivatives, definite and improper integrals, multiple integrals.

Vector Calculus: Gradient, divergence and curl, line and surface integrals, Green, Gauss and Stokes theorems.

Differential Equations: Linear ODEs, first order non-linear ODEs, initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transform, PDEs-Laplace, wave and diffusion equations.

Numerical Methods: Solution of system of linear equations, interpolation, numerical integration, Newton-Raphson method, Runge-Kutta method.

Probability & Statistics: Gaussian, Weibul distribution and their properties, method of least squares, regression analysis, analysis of variance.

2. APPLIED MECHANICS AND DESIGN

Engineering Mechanics: Equivalent force systems, free-body concepts, equations of equilibrium, trusses and frames, virtual work and minimum potential energy. Kinematics and dynamics of particles and rigid bodies, impulse and momentum (linear and angular), energy methods, central force motion.

Strength of Materials: Stress and strain, stress-strain relationship and elastic constants, Mohrs circle for plane stress and plane strain, shear force and bending moment diagrams, bending and shear stresses, deflection of beams torsion of circular shafts, thin and thick cylinders, Eulers theory of columns, strain energy methods, thermal stresses.

Theory of Machines: Displacement, velocity and acceleration, analysis of plane mechanisms, dynamic analysis of slider-crank mechanism, planar cams and followers, gear tooth profiles, kinematics and design of gears, governors and flywheels, balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses.Vibrations: Free and forced vibration of single degree freedom systems, effect of damping, vibration isolation, resonance, critical speed of rotors.

Design of Machine Elements: Design for static and dynamic loading, failure theories, fatigue strength; design of bolted, riveted and welded joints; design of shafts and keys; design of spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings; brakes and clutches; belt, ropes and chain drives.

3. FLUID MECHANICS AND THERMAL SCIENCES

Fluid Mechanics: Fluid properties, fluid statics, manometry, buoyancy; Control-volume analysis of mass, momentum and energy, fluid acceleration; Differential equation of continuity and momentum; Bernoullis equation; Viscous flow of incompressible fluids; Boundary layer, Elementary turbulent flow; Flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends etc.

Heat-Transfer: Modes of heat transfer; One dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept, electrical analogy, unsteady heat conduction, fins; Dimensionless parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, Various correlations for heat transfer in flow over flat plates and through pipes; Thermal boundary layer; effect of turbulence; Radiative heat transfer, black and grey surfaces, shape factors, network analysis; Heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods.

Thermodynamics: Zeroth, First and Second laws of thermodynamics; Thermodynamic system and processes; Irreversibility and availability; Behaviour of ideal and real gases, Properties of pure substances, calculation of work and heat in ideal processes; Analysis of thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion; Carnot, Rankine, Otto, Diesel, Brayton and Vapour compression cycles.

Power Plant Engineering: Steam generators; Steam power cycles; Steam turbines; impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams, pressure and velocity compounding; Reheating and reheat factor; Condensers and feed heaters.I.C. Engines: Requirements and suitability of fuels in IC engines, fuel ratings, fuel-air mixture requirements; Normal combustion in SI and CI engines; Engine performance calculations.

Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Refrigerant compressors, expansion devices, condensers and evaporators; Properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychometric processes.

Turbomachinery: Components of gas turbines; Compression processes, Centrifugal and Axial flow compressors; Axial flow turbines, elementary theory; Hydraulic turbines; Euler-Turbine equation; Specific speed, Pelton-wheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines; Centrifugal pumps.

4. MANUFACTURING AND INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

Engineering Materials: Structure and properties of engineering materials and their applications, heat treatment.

Metal Casting: Casting processes (expendable and non-expendable) -pattern, moulds and cores, Heating and pouring, Solidification and cooling, Gating Design, Design considerations, defects.

Forming Processes: Stress-strain diagrams for ductile and brittle material, Plastic deformation and yield criteria, Fundamentals of hot and cold working processes, Bulk metal forming processes (forging, rolling extrusion, drawing), Sheet metal working processes (punching, blanking, bending, deep drawing, coining, spinning, Load estimation using homogeneous deformation methods, Defects). Processing of Powder metals- Atomization, compaction, sintering, secondary and finishing operations. Forming and shaping of Plastics- Extrusion, Injection Molding.

Joining Processes: Physics of welding, Fusion and non-fusion welding processes, brazing and soldering, Adhesive bonding, Design considerations in welding, Weld quality defects.Machining and Machine Tool

Operations: Mechanics of machining, Single and multi-point cutting tools, Tool geometry and materials, Tool life and wear, cutting fluids, Machinability, Economics of machining, non-traditional machining processes.

Metrology and Inspection: Limits, fits and tolerances, linear and angular measurements, comparators, gauge design, interferometry, Form and finish measurement, measurement of screw threads, Alignment and testing methods.

Tool Engineering: Principles of work holding, Design of jigs and fixtures. Computer Integrated Manufacturing: Basic concepts of CAD, CAM and their integration tools.

Manufacturing Analysis: Part-print analysis, tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly, time and cost analysis.

Work-Study: Method study, work measurement time study, work sampling, job evaluation, merit rating.

Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, master scheduling, materials requirements planning.

Inventory Control: Deterministic and probabilistic models, safety stock inventory control systems.

Operations Research: Linear programming, simplex and duplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.

by Rakesh Sahu. 9 Comments

BHEL Paper For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS

  1. For ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS with answers(bolded words)
  2. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms
  3. a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedanced.) None


  4. Oscillator crystal are made of –
    a.) Silicon
    b.) Germanium
    c.) Quartz
    d.) None
  5. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion

    d.) Steel

  6. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
    a.)
    b.) C

    c.) 2C
    d.) 4C

  7. A superconductor is a –
    a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
    b.) A conductor having zero resistance
    c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
    d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

  8. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
    a) 8.05 pF
    b) 10.05pF
    c.) 16.01pF
    d.) 20.01pF

  9. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
    a.) Inductance

    b.) Capacitance
    c.) Resistance
    d.) None

  10. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
    a.) Resistance in the line
    b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
    c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
    d.) None


  11. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
    a.) Class ‘A’
    b.) Class ‘b’
    c.) Class ‘C’
    d.) None

  12. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
    a.) High positive

    b.) High negative
    c.) Low positive
    d.) Zero

  13. The input gate current of a FET is –
    a.) a few microamperes
    b.) negligibly small
    c.) a few milliamperes
    d.) a few amperes


  14. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –



    a.) 25 mA

    b.) 40 mA

    c.) 25/16 mA

    d.) 10 mA


  15. A step recovery diode –
    a.) has on extremely short recovery time

    b.) conducts equally well in both directions
    c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
    d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

  16. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
    a.) 0.1V

    b.) 5V
    c.) 10V
    d) V

  17. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
    a.) source
    b.) drain
    c.) gate

    d.) none
  18. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac

    d.) SCR

  19. A typical optical fibre has –
    a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
    b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
    c.) Both a and b

    d.) None

  20. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
    a.) 9
    b.) 11
    c.) 10
    d.) 21

  21. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9

    c.) 7.5 + j 2.5

    d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
  22. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5

    c.) 8


    d.) 9
  23. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z0 cot h Ölb.) Z0 cot Öl c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l


    d.) Z0 tan Öl
  24. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2

    d.) l/8
  25. A relatively permanent information is stored in
    a. ) ROM
    b.) RAM

    c.) PROM
    d.) Volatile memory
  26. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC

    c.) 2RC

    d.) 4RC
  27. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A


    c.) 2cos100tA

    d.) 2sin50tA
  28. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W


    c.) 9W, 6W and 9W

    d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
  29. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –

    d.) indeterminate
  30. Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge


    d.) None of the above
  31. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
    a.) Are parallel to each other
    b.)Are one and same
    c.) Cut each other orthogonally
    d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle
  32. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line


  33. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
    a.) In the +x direction
    b.) In the –x direction
    c. ) In the +y direction
    d.) In the –y direction

  34. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
    a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
    b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

    c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
    d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
  35. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
    a.) TM01

    b.)TE10
    c.) TM112
    d.)TE11
  36. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –

  37. . When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
    a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

    b.)Remain the same
    c. )Increase
    d.)Decrease to zero
  38. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
    a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
    b.)An inductance at the load
    c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

    d.)none of the above
  39. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate

    d.) none.
  40. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter


    d.) Digital multimeter
  41. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero

    d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
  42. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3

    d.) 66.3
  43. The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases

    d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
  44. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5

    d.) 1.75
  45. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)


    d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

  46. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
    a.) -2000C to 5000C
    b.) 00C to 5000C

    c.) 5000C to 12000C
    d.) 12000C to 25000C

  47. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

    a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
    b.) Silicon (Si)
    c.) Copper (Cu)
    d.) Germanium (Ge)

  48. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
    a.) 1
    b.) 2
    c.) 3

    d.) 4

  49. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
    a. b.
    c. d.
  50. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

    a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction

    b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction

    c.) step up device

    d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

    In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.

    S is closed at t = 0 the

    maximum value of current and the

    time at which it reaches this value are respectively.


    a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

  51. b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS
  52. 50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-

    a.) 200 A

    b.) 170.7 A

    c.) 141.4 A

    d.) 70.7 A

  53. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

    a.) 5850 KHZ
    b.)585 KHZ
    c.) 5850 HZ
    d.)585HZ
  54. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
    a). Higher current carrying
    b.)Lower ripple factor
    c.) Higher efficiency

    d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
  55. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
    a.) If the conduction angle decrease
    b).If the conduction angle increase
    c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
    d.)None of the above
  56. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is- a.)75b.)76 c.)75/76


    d.)-75
  57. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
    a.) It is biased almost to saturation
    b.)Its quiescent current is low
    c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
    d.)It is biased well below cut off
  58. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
    a.) Direct coupling

    b.)Impedance coupling
    c.) R C coupling
    d.)Transformer coupling
  59. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
    a.) Current series feedback
    b.)Current shunt feedback

    c.) Voltage series feedback
    d.)Voltage shunt feedback
  60. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

  61. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –a.) PISO shift registerb.) SOIP shift register c.) SIPO shift register

    d.) POIS shift register
  62. PROMs are used to store-a.) bulk informationb.) information to be accessed rarely c.) sequence information

    d.) relatively permanent information
  63. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-a.) Output bit combinationb.) analog output voltage c.) input bit combination

    d.) none of the above
  64. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –a.) s = 0, R = 0b.) s = 1, R = 1 c.) s = 0, R = 1

    d.) s = 1, R = 0
  65. Name the fastest logic family-a) TTLb.) RTL c.) DCTL

    d.) ECL
  66. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is – a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB c.) A + AB = A

    d.) None of the above
  67. In the given fig find radix of the system –

    a.) 2


    b.) 4

    c.) 6

    d.) 8

  68. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –a.) increase the transmission capacityb) improve noice performance c.) incorporate error control coding

    d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
  69. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is- a.) b.) 3


    c.) 4

    d.) 5
  70. Identify the example of open-loop system-a.) A windscreen wiperb.) Aqualung c.) Respiratory system of an animal

    d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
  71. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)2. (e-2t +5) (u(t)) 3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)


    4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)

    Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-

    a.) 1&3

    b.) 1&4

    c.) 2&4

    d.) 1&4
  72. A system is described by

    To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.



    Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-

    a.) Only V1

    b.) Only V2



    c.) Both V1 and V2




    d.) Neither V1 nor v2

  73. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function



  74. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-


  75. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions. 3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.

    4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    Codes

    a.) 1 and 4

    b.) 2 and 3

    c.) 1 and 3

    d.) 2 and 4
  76. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds isa.) 150 samples per second b.) 200 samples per second


    c.) 300 samples per second

    d.) 350 samples per second
  77. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.a.) 34 and 106b.) 52. And 88 c.) 106 and 142

    d.) 34 and 142
  78. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –a.) Pulse radarb.) Tracking radar c.) MTI radar

    d.) Mono pulse radar
  79. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed


    d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
  80. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-a.) Compression of the modulating signalb.) Expansion of the modulating signal

    c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
  81. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-a.) reflection from the ionosphereb.) line of sight mode

    c) reflection from the groundd.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
  82. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector toa.) increase the gain of the systemb). increase the bandwidth of the system

    c.) reduce the size of the main reflectord.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
  83. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body. c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid

    d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
  84. Circuit in the given figure represents. – a.) an astable multivibrator b.) A monostable multivibrator

    c.) Voltage controlled oscillator

    d.) Ramp generator
  85. . . D = r is-a.) Maxwell’s 1st equationb.) Maxwell’s II equation c.) Maxwell’s III equation


    d.) Maxwell’s IV equation
  86. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-a.) TM00b.) TM01

    c.) Tm10



    d.) TM11

  87. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.a). port 4b). port 3 c.) port 2.

    d.) port 3 & 4.


  88. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
    a.) Barometer are used
    b.) Thermisters are used

    c.) Calorimetric technique
    d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

  89. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
    a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
    b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time

    c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
    d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

  90. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
    a.) Hown antennas
    b.) Bioconical antennas
    c.) helical antenna

    d. )Discone

  91. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
    a.)
    b. )
    c.)
    d.)


  92. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
    a.) 4
    b.) 6
    c.) 8
    c.) 10

  93. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
    a.) 2
    b.) 3

    c.) 4
    d.) 5

  94. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
    a.) z = 0, cy = 0
    b.) z = 0, cy = 1
    c.) z = 1, cy = 0
    d.) z = 1, cy = 1

  95. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
    a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
    b.) when INTA signal is low.
    c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
    d.) none of above.

  96. Microprogramming is a technique
    a.) for programming the microprocessor

    b.) for writing small programs efficiently
    c.) for programming the control steps of computer

    d.) for programming o/p / i/p
  97. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help ofa.) interpreterb.) compiler c.) operating

    d.) system
  98. (10110011)2 = (?)8a.) 253b.) 263 c.) 273


    d.) 283
  99. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-a.) NANDb.) NOR c.) AND

    d.) NOPE.
  100. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-a.) ANDb.) OR c.) NAND

    d.) X-OR
  101. A symbol of JK flip flop is-


  102. A demultiplener-a.) has multiple i/p and single o/pb.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p

    d.) has single i/p and single o/p
  103. . Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?a.) fascinationb.) open approval. c.) Indulgent tolerance.

    d.) Scornful.
  104. What type of sentence is this ?Hurray! We won the matcha.) Exclamatory b.) assertive


    c.) Negative

    d.) Affirmative
  105. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’a.) hourb.) M. A. c.) Umbrella

    d.) Man
  106. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –a.) freshlyb.) freshen c.) fresheners

    d.) fresh itself
  107. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –a.) Simileb.) inversion c.) onomatopoeia


    d.) irony
  108. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-a.) Pentafour softwareb) Infosys c.) IBM

    d.) Wipro
  109. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussainb.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar

    d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
  110. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-a.) 42nd

    b.) 43rd c.) 40th


    d.) 45th
  111. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-a.) T. Venkat Naidub.) K. Hari Harh c.) N. Rengaswany

    d.) M. Mudliar
  112. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-a.) 311b.) 329 c.) 356

    d.) 365
  113. Ostrich is a-a.) Running birdb.) Flying bird c) Swimming bird


    d.) Migratory bird
  114. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-a.) Oxygenb.) Nitrogen c.) Ozone

    d.) Carbon-dioxide
  115. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-a.) Riceb.) groundnut c.) Sugarcane

    d.) gram
  116. The function of World Bank is to-a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economyb.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments

    d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
  117. Speed of sound is maximum in-a. )Waterb.) Air c.) Steel


    d.) Vacuum
  118. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-a.) Subhash Chandra Boseb.) Jawaharlal Nehru c.) Lajpat Rai

    d.) Bhagat Singh
  119. Durand cup is associated with-a.) Hockeyb.) Tennis c.) Football

    d.) Badminton
  120. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.a.) 1908b.) 1910 c.) 1913


    d.) 1914
  121. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-a.) May 18, 1975b.) May 20, 1974 c) May 17, 1974

    d.) May 17, 1974
  122. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-a.) Asian development Bankb.) World Bank c.) Swiss Bank

    d.) Reserve Bank of India

by Rakesh Sahu. 3 Comments